Mean value theorem

A special case of this theorem was first described by Parameshvara (1370–1460), from the Kerala School of Astronomy and Mathematics in India, in his commentaries on Govindasvāmi and Bhāskara II.[1] A restricted form of the theorem was proved by Michel Rolle in 1691; the result was what is now known as Rolle's theorem, and was proved only for polynomials, without the techniques of calculus. The mean value theorem in its modern form was stated and proved by Augustin Louis Cauchy in 1823.[2] Many variations of this theorem have been proved since then.[3][4]

The function ${\displaystyle f}$ attains the slope of the secant between ${\displaystyle a}$ and ${\displaystyle b}$ as the derivative at the point ${\displaystyle \xi \in (a,b)}$.

It is also possible that there are multiple tangents parallel to the secant.

Let ${\displaystyle f:[a,b]\to \mathbb {R} }$ be a continuous function on the closed interval ${\displaystyle [a,b]}$ , and differentiable on the open interval ${\displaystyle (a,b)}$, where ${\displaystyle a<b}$. Then there exists some ${\displaystyle c}$ in ${\displaystyle (a,b)}$ such that

${\displaystyle f'(c)={\frac {f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}}.}$

The mean value theorem is a generalization of Rolle's theorem, which assumes ${\displaystyle f(a)=f(b)}$, so that the right-hand side above is zero.

The mean value theorem is still valid in a slightly more general setting. One only needs to assume that ${\displaystyle f:[a,b]\to \mathbb {R} }$ is continuous on ${\displaystyle [a,b]}$ , and that for every ${\displaystyle x}$ in ${\displaystyle (a,b)}$ the limit

${\displaystyle \lim _{h\to 0}{\frac {f(x+h)-f(x)}{h}}}$

exists as a finite number or equals ${\displaystyle \infty }$ or ${\displaystyle -\infty }$ . If finite, that limit equals ${\displaystyle f'(x)}$ . An example where this version of the theorem applies is given by the real-valued cube root function mapping ${\displaystyle x\to x^{\frac {1}{3}}}$ , whose derivative tends to infinity at the origin.

Note that the theorem, as stated, is false if a differentiable function is complex-valued instead of real-valued. For example, define ${\displaystyle f(x)=e^{xi}}$ for all real ${\displaystyle x}$ . Then

${\displaystyle f(2\pi )-f(0)=0=0(2\pi -0)}$

while ${\displaystyle f'(x)\neq 0}$ for any real ${\displaystyle x}$ .

These formal statements are also known as Lagrange's Mean Value Theorem.[5]

The expression ${\displaystyle {\frac {f(b)-f(a)}{(b-a)}}}$ gives the slope of the line joining the points ${\displaystyle (a,f(a))}$ and ${\displaystyle (b,f(b))}$ , which is a chord of the graph of ${\displaystyle f}$ , while ${\displaystyle f'(x)}$ gives the slope of the tangent to the curve at the point ${\displaystyle (x,f(x))}$ . Thus the mean value theorem says that given any chord of a smooth curve, we can find a point lying between the end-points of the chord such that the tangent at that point is parallel to the chord. The following proof illustrates this idea.

Define ${\displaystyle g(x)=f(x)-rx}$ , where ${\displaystyle r}$ is a constant. Since ${\displaystyle f}$ is continuous on ${\displaystyle [a,b]}$ and differentiable on ${\displaystyle (a,b)}$ , the same is true for ${\displaystyle g}$ . We now want to choose ${\displaystyle r}$ so that ${\displaystyle g}$ satisfies the conditions of Rolle's theorem. Namely

${\displaystyle {\begin{aligned}g(a)=g(b)&\iff f(a)-ra=f(b)-rb\\&\iff r(b-a)=f(b)-f(a)\\&\iff r={\frac {f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}}\cdot \end{aligned}}}$

By Rolle's theorem, since ${\displaystyle g}$ is differentiable and ${\displaystyle g(a)=g(b)}$ , there is some ${\displaystyle c}$ in ${\displaystyle (a,b)}$ for which ${\displaystyle g'(c)=0}$ , and it follows from the equality ${\displaystyle g(x)=f(x)-rx}$ that,

${\displaystyle {\begin{aligned}&g'(x)=f'(x)-r\\&g'(c)=0\\&g'(c)=f'(c)-r=0\\&\Rightarrow f'(c)=r={\frac {f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}}\end{aligned}}}$

Cauchy's mean value theorem, also known as the extended mean value theorem,[6] is a generalization of the mean value theorem. It states: if the functions ${\displaystyle f}$ and ${\displaystyle g}$ are both continuous on the closed interval ${\displaystyle [a,b]}$ and differentiable on the open interval ${\displaystyle (a,b)}$, then there exists some ${\displaystyle c\in (a,b)}$, such that[5]

Geometrical meaning of Cauchy's theorem

${\displaystyle (f(b)-f(a))g'(c)=(g(b)-g(a))f'(c).}$

Of course, if ${\displaystyle g(a)\neq g(b)}$ and ${\displaystyle g'(c)\neq 0}$, this is equivalent to:

${\displaystyle {\frac {f'(c)}{g'(c)}}={\frac {f(b)-f(a)}{g(b)-g(a)}}.}$

Geometrically, this means that there is some tangent to the graph of the curve[7]

${\displaystyle {\begin{cases}[a,b]\to \mathbf {R} ^{2}\\t\mapsto (f(t),g(t))\end{cases}}}$

which is parallel to the line defined by the points ${\displaystyle (f(a),g(a))}$ and ${\displaystyle (f(b),g(b))}$. However, Cauchy's theorem does not claim the existence of such a tangent in all cases where ${\displaystyle (f(a),g(a))}$ and ${\displaystyle (f(b),g(b))}$ are distinct points, since it might be satisfied only for some value ${\displaystyle c}$ with ${\displaystyle f'(c)=g'(c)=0}$, in other words a value for which the mentioned curve is stationary; in such points no tangent to the curve is likely to be defined at all. An example of this situation is the curve given by

${\displaystyle t\mapsto (t^{3},1-t^{2}),}$

which on the interval ${\displaystyle [-1,1]}$ goes from the point ${\displaystyle (-1,0)}$ to ${\displaystyle (1,0)}$, yet never has a horizontal tangent; however it has a stationary point (in fact a cusp) at ${\displaystyle t=0}$.

Cauchy's mean value theorem can be used to prove l'Hôpital's rule. The mean value theorem is the special case of Cauchy's mean value theorem when ${\displaystyle g(t)=t}$.

Assume that ${\displaystyle f,g,}$ and ${\displaystyle h}$ are differentiable functions on ${\displaystyle (a,b)}$ that are continuous on ${\displaystyle [a,b]}$. Define

${\displaystyle D(x)=\left|{\begin{array}{ccc}f(x)&g(x)&h(x)\\f(a)&g(a)&h(a)\\f(b)&g(b)&h(b)\end{array}}\right|}$

There exists ${\displaystyle c\in (a,b)}$ such that ${\displaystyle D'(c)=0}$.

Notice that

${\displaystyle D'(x)=\left|{\begin{array}{ccc}f'(x)&g'(x)&h'(x)\\f(a)&g(a)&h(a)\\f(b)&g(b)&h(b)\end{array}}\right|}$

and if we place ${\displaystyle h(x)=1}$, we get Cauchy's mean value theorem. If we place ${\displaystyle h(x)=1}$ and ${\displaystyle g(x)=x}$ we get Lagrange's mean value theorem.

The proof of the generalization is quite simple: each of ${\displaystyle D(a)}$ and ${\displaystyle D(b)}$ are determinants with two identical rows, hence ${\displaystyle D(a)=D(b)=0}$. The Rolle's theorem implies that there exists ${\displaystyle c\in (a,b)}$ such that ${\displaystyle D'(c)=0}$.

The mean value theorem generalizes to real functions of multiple variables. The trick is to use parametrization to create a real function of one variable, and then apply the one-variable theorem.

Let ${\displaystyle G}$ be an open convex subset of ${\displaystyle \mathbb {R} ^{n}}$ , and let ${\displaystyle f:G\to \mathbb {R} }$ be a differentiable function. Fix points ${\displaystyle x,y\in G}$ , and define ${\displaystyle g(t)=f{\Big (}(1-t)x+ty{\Big )}}$ . Since ${\displaystyle g}$ is a differentiable function in one variable, the mean value theorem gives:

${\displaystyle g(1)-g(0)=g'(c)}$

for some ${\displaystyle c}$ between 0 and 1. But since ${\displaystyle g(1)=f(y)}$ and ${\displaystyle g(0)=f(x)}$ , computing ${\displaystyle g'(c)}$ explicitly we have:

${\displaystyle f(y)-f(x)=\nabla f{\Big (}(1-c)x+cy{\Big )}\cdot (y-x)}$

where ${\displaystyle \nabla }$ denotes a gradient and ${\displaystyle \cdot }$ a dot product. Note that this is an exact analog of the theorem in one variable (in the case ${\displaystyle n=1}$ this is the theorem in one variable). By the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality, the equation gives the estimate:

${\displaystyle {\Bigg |}f(y)-f(x){\Bigg |}\leq {\Bigg |}\nabla f{\Big (}(1-c)x+cy{\Big )}{\Bigg |}\ {\Big |}y-x{\Big |}.}$

In particular, when the partial derivatives of ${\displaystyle f}$ are bounded, ${\displaystyle f}$ is Lipschitz continuous (and therefore uniformly continuous).

As an application of the above, we prove that ${\displaystyle f}$ is constant if ${\displaystyle G}$ is open and connected and every partial derivative of ${\displaystyle f}$ is 0. Pick some point ${\displaystyle x_{0}\in G}$ , and let ${\displaystyle g(x)=f(x)-f(x_{0})}$ . We want to show ${\displaystyle g(x)=0}$ for every ${\displaystyle x\in G}$ . For that, let ${\displaystyle E=\{x\in G:g(x)=0\}}$ . Then E is closed and nonempty. It is open too: for every ${\displaystyle x\in E}$ ,

${\displaystyle {\Big |}g(y){\Big |}={\Bigg |}g(y)-g(x){\Bigg |}\leq (0){\Big |}y-x{\Big |}=0}$

for every ${\displaystyle y}$ in some neighborhood of ${\displaystyle x}$ . (Here, it is crucial that ${\displaystyle x}$ and ${\displaystyle y}$ are sufficiently close to each other.) Since ${\displaystyle G}$ is connected, we conclude ${\displaystyle E=G}$ .

The above arguments are made in a coordinate-free manner; hence, they generalize to the case when ${\displaystyle G}$ is a subset of a Banach space.

There is no exact analog of the mean value theorem for vector-valued functions.

In Principles of Mathematical Analysis, Rudin gives an inequality which can be applied to many of the same situations to which the mean value theorem is applicable in the one dimensional case:[8]

Theorem. For a continuous vector-valued function ${\displaystyle \mathbf {f}$ :[a,b]\to \mathbb {R} ^{k}} differentiable on ${\displaystyle (a,b)}$, there exists ${\displaystyle x\in (a,b)}$ such that ${\displaystyle |\mathbf {f} '(x)|\geq {\frac {1}{b-a}}|\mathbf {f} (b)-\mathbf {f} (a)|}$.

Jean Dieudonné in his classic treatise Foundations of Modern Analysis discards the mean value theorem and replaces it by mean inequality as the proof is not constructive and one cannot find the mean value and in applications one only needs mean inequality. Serge Lang in Analysis I uses the mean value theorem, in integral form, as an instant reflex but this use requires the continuity of the derivative. If one uses the Henstock–Kurzweil integral one can have the mean value theorem in integral form without the additional assumption that derivative should be continuous as every derivative is Henstock–Kurzweil integrable. The problem is roughly speaking the following: If f : U → R^m is a differentiable function (where U ⊂ Rⁿ is open) and if x + th, x, h ∈ Rⁿ, t ∈ [0, 1] is the line segment in question (lying inside U), then one can apply the above parametrization procedure to each of the component functions f_i (i = 1, ..., m) of f (in the above notation set y = x + h). In doing so one finds points x + t_ih on the line segment satisfying

${\displaystyle f_{i}(x+h)-f_{i}(x)=\nabla f_{i}(x+t_{i}h)\cdot h.}$

But generally there will not be a single point x + t*h on the line segment satisfying

${\displaystyle f_{i}(x+h)-f_{i}(x)=\nabla f_{i}(x+t^{*}h)\cdot h.}$

for all i simultaneously. For example, define:

${\displaystyle {\begin{cases}f:[0,2\pi ]\to \mathbf {R} ^{2}\\f(x)=(\cos(x),\sin(x))\end{cases}}}$

Then ${\displaystyle f(2\pi )-f(0)=\mathbf {0} \in \mathbf {R} ^{2}}$, but ${\displaystyle f_{1}'(x)=-\sin(x)}$ and ${\displaystyle f_{2}'(x)=\cos(x)}$ are never simultaneously zero as ${\displaystyle x}$ ranges over ${\displaystyle \left[0,2\pi \right]}$.

However a certain type of generalization of the mean value theorem to vector-valued functions is obtained as follows: Let f be a continuously differentiable real-valued function defined on an open interval I, and let x as well as x + h be points of I. The mean value theorem in one variable tells us that there exists some t* between 0 and 1 such that

${\displaystyle f(x+h)-f(x)=f'(x+t^{*}h)\cdot h.}$

On the other hand, we have, by the fundamental theorem of calculus followed by a change of variables,

${\displaystyle f(x+h)-f(x)=\int _{x}^{x+h}f'(u)\,du=\left(\int _{0}^{1}f'(x+th)\,dt\right)\cdot h.}$

Thus, the value f′(x + t*h) at the particular point t* has been replaced by the mean value

${\displaystyle \int _{0}^{1}f'(x+th)\,dt.}$

This last version can be generalized to vector valued functions:

Lemma 1. Let U ⊂ Rⁿ be open, f : U → R^m continuously differentiable, and x ∈ U, h ∈ Rⁿ vectors such that the line segment x + th, 0 ≤ t ≤ 1 remains in U. Then we have:

${\displaystyle f(x+h)-f(x)=\left(\int _{0}^{1}Df(x+th)\,dt\right)\cdot h,}$

where Df denotes the Jacobian matrix of f and the integral of a matrix is to be understood componentwise.

Proof. Let f₁, ..., f_m denote the components of f and define:

${\displaystyle {\begin{cases}g_{i}:[0,1]\to \mathbf {R} \\g_{i}(t)=f_{i}(x+th)\end{cases}}}$

Then we have

${\displaystyle {\begin{aligned}&f_{i}(x+h)-f_{i}(x)=g_{i}(1)-g_{i}(0)=\int _{0}^{1}g_{i}'(t)\,dt\\={}&\int _{0}^{1}\left(\sum _{j=1}^{n}{\frac {\partial f_{i}}{\partial x_{j}}}(x+th)h_{j}\right)\,dt=\sum _{j=1}^{n}\left(\int _{0}^{1}{\frac {\partial f_{i}}{\partial x_{j}}}(x+th)\,dt\right)h_{j}.\end{aligned}}}$

The claim follows since Df is the matrix consisting of the components ${\displaystyle {\tfrac {\partial f_{i}}{\partial x_{j}}}.}$

Lemma 2. Let v : [a, b] → R^m be a continuous function defined on the interval [a, b] ⊂ R. Then we have

${\displaystyle \left\|\int _{a}^{b}v(t)\,dt\right\|\leqslant \int _{a}^{b}\|v(t)\|\,dt.}$

Proof. Let u in R^m denote the value of the integral

${\displaystyle u:=\int _{a}^{b}v(t)\,dt.}$

Now we have (using the Cauchy–Schwarz inequality):

${\displaystyle \|u\|^{2}=\langle u,u\rangle =\left\langle \int _{a}^{b}v(t)\,dt,u\right\rangle =\int _{a}^{b}\langle v(t),u\rangle \,dt\leqslant \int _{a}^{b}\|v(t)\|\cdot \|u\|\,dt=\|u\|\int _{a}^{b}\|v(t)\|\,dt}$

Now cancelling the norm of u from both ends gives us the desired inequality.

Mean Value Inequality. If the norm of Df(x + th) is bounded by some constant M for t in [0, 1], then

${\displaystyle \|f(x+h)-f(x)\|\leqslant M\|h\|.}$

Proof. From Lemma 1 and 2 it follows that

${\displaystyle \|f(x+h)-f(x)\|=\left\|\int _{0}^{1}(Df(x+th)\cdot h)\,dt\right\|\leqslant \int _{0}^{1}\|Df(x+th)\|\cdot \|h\|\,dt\leqslant M\|h\|.}$

Let X and Y be non-negative random variables such that E[X] < E[Y] < ∞ and ${\displaystyle X\leqslant _{st}Y}$ (i.e. X is smaller than Y in the usual stochastic order). Then there exists an absolutely continuous non-negative random variable Z having probability density function

${\displaystyle f_{Z}(x)={\Pr(Y>x)-\Pr(X>x) \over {\rm {E}}[Y]-{\rm {E}}[X]}\,,\qquad x\geqslant 0.}$

Let g be a measurable and differentiable function such that E[g(X)], E[g(Y)] < ∞, and let its derivative g′ be measurable and Riemann-integrable on the interval [x, y] for all y ≥ x ≥ 0. Then, E[g′(Z)] is finite and[12]

${\displaystyle {\rm {E}}[g(Y)]-{\rm {E}}[g(X)]={\rm {E}}[g'(Z)]\,[{\rm {E}}(Y)-{\rm {E}}(X)].}$

As noted above, the theorem does not hold for differentiable complex-valued functions. Instead, a generalization of the theorem is stated such:[13]

Let f : Ω → C be a holomorphic function on the open convex set Ω, and let a and b be distinct points in Ω. Then there exist points u, v on L_ab (the line segment from a to b) such that

${\displaystyle \mathrm {Re} (f'(u))=\mathrm {Re} \left({\frac {f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}}\right),}$

${\displaystyle \mathrm {Im} (f'(v))=\mathrm {Im} \left({\frac {f(b)-f(a)}{b-a}}\right).}$

Where Re() is the Real part and Im() is the Imaginary part of a complex-valued function.

• Newmark-beta method
• Mean value theorem (divided differences)
• Racetrack principle
• Stolarsky mean

• "Cauchy theorem", Encyclopedia of Mathematics, EMS Press, 2001 [1994]
• PlanetMath: Mean-Value Theorem
• Weisstein, Eric W. "Mean value theorem". MathWorld.
• Weisstein, Eric W. "Cauchy's Mean-Value Theorem". MathWorld.
• "Mean Value Theorem: Intuition behind the Mean Value Theorem" at the Khan Academy